John 8:19

Then said they unto him, Where is your Father? Jesus answered, You neither know me, nor my Father: if you had known me, you should have known my Father also.
All Commentaries on John 8:19 Go To John 8

John Chrysostom

AD 407
Because while they knew they spoke as though they knew not, and as if trying Him, He does not even deem them worthy of an answer. Wherefore henceforth He speaks all more clearly and more boldly; drawing His testimony from signs, and from His teaching of them that followed Him, and by the Cross being near. For, I know, He says, whence I come. This would not greatly affect them, but the adding, and whither I go, would rather terrify them, since He was not to remain in death. But why said He not, I know that I am God, instead of, I know whence I come? He ever mingles lowly words with sublime, and even these He veils. For after saying, I bear witness of Myself, and proving this, He descends to a humbler strain. As though He had said, I know from whom I am sent, and to whom I depart. For so they could have had nothing to say against it, when they heard that He was sent from Him, and would depart to Him. I could not have spoken, He says, any falsehood, I who have come from thence, and depart there, to the true God. But ye know not God, and therefore judge according to the flesh. For if having heard so many sure signs and proofs ye still say, 'your witness is not true,' if you deem Moses worthy of credit, both as to what he speaks concerning others and what he speaks concerning himself, but Christ not so, this is to judge according to the flesh. But I judge no man. He says indeed also that the Father judges no man. John 5:22 How then does He here declare, that, If I judge, My judgment is just, for I am not alone? He again speaks in reply to their thoughts. The judgment which is Mine is the judgment of the Father. The Father, judging, would not judge otherwise than as I do, and I should not judge otherwise than as the Father. Wherefore did He mention the Father? Because they would not have thought that the Son was to be believed unless He received the witness of the Father.  Besides, the saying does not even hold good. For in the case of men when two bear witness in a matter pertaining to another, then their witness is true, (this is for two to witness,) but if one should witness for himself, then they are no longer two. Do you see that He said this for nothing else but to show that He was of the same Substance, that He needed no other witness, and was in nothing inferior to the Father? Observe at least His independence ;
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Knowing this first, that no prophecy of the scripture is of any private interpretation - 2 Peter 1:20

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