Where is boasting then? It is excluded. By what law? of works? Nay: but by the law of faith.
All Commentaries on Romans 3:27 Go To Romans 3
Thomas Aquinas
AD 1274
After showing that Jews have no advantage over the Gentiles either in regard to sin or to righteousness,19 he now presents the intended conclusion, by rejecting the boasts whereby they preferred themselves to the Gentiles. He does three things. First, he proposes that this boasting be excluded; secondly, the reason for this exclusion, there [v. 27b; n. 315] at by what law?; thirdly, the way it is excluded, there [v. 28; n. 317] at For we judge. 160 20 RSV Ps 68:30. The Hebrew text of this verse is obscure. 314. In regard to the first he does two things. First, he raises a question: Inasmuch as you, 0 Jew, are under sin just as the Gentile, and the Gentile is made just by faith just as you are, then what becomes of your boasting, whereby you take glory in the Law, as stated above, and on this ground wish to prefer yourself to the Gentile? "Your boasting is not good" (1 Cor 5:6); "Let us have no self-conceit, envying one another," (Gal 5:26). Secondly, he answers this, saying, it is excluded, i.e., is taken away: "The glory has been taken away from Israel" (1 Sam 4:21); "I will change their glory into shame" (Hos 4:7). Or excluded, i.e., expressly manifested. For the Jews gloried in the glory and worship of the one God, and he says that their glory was excluded, i.e., pressed out [expressam] by Christ, as artists who press out an image in silver are called "excludors," in accord with Ps 67:31, "That they might exclude those who were tried by silver."20 But the first meaning is more literal. 315. Then when he says by what law, he states the cause of this exclusion. Since the Jews’ boasting was about the Law, as has been stated above, it seemed that their boasting had to be excluded by something of the same genre, i.e., by some law. Therefore, he asks on what is their boasting to be excluded? For someone might suppose that the Apostle means their boasting was excluded by certain legal precepts which commanded greater works. That is why he asks, on the principle of works? As if to say: Do I say that their boasting has been excluded by some law of works? But he answers: No, but by the law of faith. 161 So it is plain that the Apostle alludes here to two laws, that of works and that of faith. At first glance it would seem that by the law of works is meant the Old Law and by the law of faith the New Law, through which the Gentile is made equal to the Jew. 316. But there is some doubt about this distinction. For even in the Old Law faith was necessary, just as it is in the New: "You who fear the Lord believe him" (Sir 2:8); "I believed; therefore I have spoken" (Ps l16:l0). And indeed, works are required in the New Law, namely, the works of certain sacraments, as commanded in Luke 22(:19), "Do this in memory of me" and of moral observances: "Be doers of the word and not hearers only" (Jas 1:22). Consequently, it should be said that what he calls the law of works is the law outwardly presented and written, through which men’s external works are directed, when it prescribes what he ought to do and forbids what ought to be avoided. But what he calls the law of faith is the law inwardly written, through which are directed not only external works but even the very motions of the heart, among which the act of faith is first: "Man believes with his heart" (Rom 10:10). Of this second law he speaks below (8:2): "The law of the spirit of life in Christ Jesus." 317. Then when he says, For we hold, he shows how the Jews’ boasting is excluded by the law of faith, saying: For we apostles, being taught the truth by Christ, hold that a man, whomsoever he be, whether Jew or Gentile, is justified by faith: "He cleansed their hearts by faith" (Ac 15:9). And this apart from the works of the law. Not only without the ceremonial works, which did not confer grace but only signified it, but also without the works of the moral precepts, as stated in Titus 3(:5), "Not because of deeds done by us in righteousness." This, of course, means without 162 works prior to becoming just, but not without works following it, because, as is stated in Jas (2:26): "Faith without works," i.e., subsequent works, "is dead," and, consequently, cannot justify. 318. Then when he says Or is God the God of the Jews only?, he manifests something he had presupposed, namely, that the righteousness of faith stands in the same common relation to all. He had previously explained this with a reason based on the material cause, when he stated above (v. 23) that "all have sinned and need the glory of God," i.e., they are sinners, who need to be made just by the grace of God. But a proof based solely on the material cause is not enough, because matter is not moved to a form by itself without an agent cause. Accordingly, he now presents a proof based on the agent cause, i.e., the justifier, who is God: "It is God who justifies" (Rom 8:33). Now it is manifest that our God by justifying saves those whose God he is, according to Ps 68(:20), "Our God is a God of salvation." But he is the God not of the Jews only but of the Gentiles also; therefore, he justifies both. 319. On this point he does three things. First, he raises a question concerning the Jews, when he says, Is God the God of Jews only? It might seem that he is, because it says in Exodus 5(:3), "The God of the Hebrews called us." Hence it must be said that he was the God of the Jews only by the special worship paid to God by them; hence it is stated in Ps 76 (v.1): "In Judah God is known"; yet he was the God of all by his common reign over all things, as is stated in Ps 47(:8), "God is king of all the earth." 163 Secondly, he raises the question on the side of the Gentiles, saying: Is he not God of the Gentiles also? and he answers: Yes, of Gentiles also, whom he governs and rules: "Who would not fear thee, O king of the nations?" (Jer 10:7). Thirdly, there at for God indeed is one, he manifests what he had said with a sign, as if to say: It is clear that he is the God not only of the Jews but also of the Gentiles, for God indeed is one and he will justify the circumcised, i.e., the Jews, from faith, as is said in Galatians 5(:6), "In Christ Jesus neither circumcision nor uncircumcision is of any avail." 320. According to the Gloss, "from faith" [ex fide] and "by faith" [per fidem] are exactly the same. However, a slight difference can be noted. For the preposition "from" [ex] sometimes designates a remote cause, while the preposition "through" [per] designates a nearer cause. Therefore, the Jews are said to be justified "from" faith because faith was the first cause from which circumcision and the other sacraments of the Law proceeded; thus, faith justified the Jews as a primary cause through intermediate causes. But the Gentiles are justified by faith itself immediately. 321. Then when he says Do we therefore overthrow he excludes an objection. For someone might claim that he is overthrowing the aforementioned Law; therefore, he asks: Do we therefore overthrow the law by faith, inasmuch as we say that men are justified without the works of the Law? He answers: By no means! in keeping with Matt 5(:18), "Not an iota, not a dot, will pass from the law." Rather, he adds: On the contrary, we uphold the law, i.e., by faith we complete and fulfill the Law, as Matt 5(:17) says, "I have come not to abolish the law but to fulfill it." 164 This is true as regards the ceremonial precepts because, being figures, they were upheld and fulfilled by the fact that the truth signified by them is shown forth in the faith of Christ. This is also true as regards the moral precepts, because the faith of Christ confers the help of grace to fulfill the moral precepts of the Law and even adds special counsels, through which the moral precepts are more safely and securely kept.
