Romans 9:24

Even us, whom he has called, not of the Jews only, but also of the Gentiles?
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Ambrosiaster

AD 400
God has called those whom he has prepared for glory, who he knew would persevere in faith, whether they are near at hand or far away. Commentary on Paul’s Epistles.

Augustine of Hippo

AD 430
God did not call all the Jews but only some of them. Nor did he call all the Gentiles but only some of them. From Adam has sprung one mass of sinners and godless men, in which both Jews and Gentiles belong to one lump, apart from the grace of God. If the potter out of one lump of clay makes one vessel for honor and another for dishonor, it is clear that God has made of the Jews some vessels for honor and others for dishonor, and similarly of the Gentiles. . ...

George Leo Haydock

AD 1849
Whom also he hath called That is, he hath called some of the Jews, and many of the Gentiles, to be vessels of election, as he foretold by his prophet Osee, (ii. 24.) I will call them my people, that were not my people. And I will make them the children of the living God. And as it was also foretold by the prophet Isaias, of all the numerous nation of the Jews, only a remnant shall be saved, by their obstinacy in not receiving, and refusing to believe in, their Messias. For finishing his word, and reducing it by his justice to a little, because the Lord will bring to pass his word reducing it to a small compass upon the earth. The sense and construction of this verse is equally obscure in the Greek and in the Latin text: the true sense seems to be, that finishing his word, or fulfilling his promises to Israel, those that are to be saved, will be reduced by his justice for their sins, to a few; because, though he bring to pass his word, and his promises, the saved among the Israelites wi...

Thomas Aquinas

AD 1274
After showing that God's grace is given to men as a result of God's election through which men are called to grace [n. 748], the Apostle shows that such election or calling applies not only to the Jews (as if they could boast on account of what is said in Dt (4:37): "He loved your fathers,") but also to the Gentiles. First, he states the intended proposition; secondly, he proves it [v. 25; n. 798] 396 thirdly, he draws the conclusion [v. 30; n. 807]. 797. First, therefore he says: We have states that God prepared the saints for glory, whom he also called, namely, by His grace, not from the Jews only but also from the Gentiles: "Is God the God of the Jews only? Is he not the God of Gentiles also?" (Rom 3:29): "They shall adore him, every man from his own place, all the islands of the Gentiles" (Zeph 2:11). 798. The (v. 25) he proves the proposition: first, with respect to the Gentiles, secondly, the Jews [v. 27; n. 801]. In regard to the first he cites two texts from Hosea speaking fro ...

Knowing this first, that no prophecy of the scripture is of any private interpretation. - 2 Peter 1:20

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