Matthew 22:45

If David then called him Lord, how is he his son?
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Augustine of Hippo

AD 430
Here then there is need for caution, lest Christ himself be thought to have denied that he was the Son of David. He did not deny that he was the Son of David, but he probed his detractors on the particular way this can be. You have said that Christ is the Son of David. I do not deny it. But “if David thus calls him Lord, how is he his Son?” Tell me how he could be his son who is also his Lord? They did not answer him but were dumbfounded. Let us then answer them by the explanation given by Christ himself. Where given? Through his apostle. By what source can we prove that Christ himself has explained it? The apostle says, “Would you receive a proof of Christ who speaks in me?” So it is through the apostle’s voice that Christ has allowed this question to be solved. In the first place, do you remember what Christ said, speaking by the apostle to Timothy? “Remember Jesus Christ, raised from the dead, descended from David. This is my gospel.” So it is easy to see that Christ is the Son of D...

George Leo Haydock

AD 1849
If David then call him Lord, how is he his son? It was allowed of as a certain truth, that the Messias was to be the son of David. Christ shows them by David's own words, that he was the Lord as well as the son of David: and this is what they could not answer to. (Witham) Jesus Christ here inculcates to the Pharisees, that two natures must be admitted in the Messias; in one of which, viz. in his human nature, he is the son of David, and as such inferior to him; and in the other, viz. in his divine nature, he is the son of God, and consequently superior to David; whence this latter, by the inspiration of the Holy Spirit, justly calls him Lord. (Tirinus) Jesus Christ does not wish them to think that the Messias is not the son of David, but only wished to rectify their opinion concerning him. When therefore he asks how he is the son, he teaches them that he is not after the manner they understand it, the mere Son, but what is much more, the Lord also, of David. (St. John Chrysostom, hom...

John Chrysostom

AD 407
And that they may not say, that it was in flattery he so called Him, and that this was a human judgment, see what He says, How then does David in spirit call Him Lord? See how submissively He introduces the sentence and judgment concerning Himself. First, He had said, What do you think? Whose Son is He? so by a question to bring them to an answer. Then since they said, the Son of David, He said not, And yet David says these things, but again in this order of a question, How then does David in spirit call Him Lord? in order that the sayings might not give offense to them. Wherefore neither did He say, What think ye of me, but of Christ. For this reason the apostles also reasoned submissively, saying, Let us speak freely of the Patriarch David, that he is both dead and buried. Acts 2:29 And He Himself too in like manner for this cause introduces the doctrine in the way of question and inference, saying, How then does David in spirit call Him Lord, saying, The Lord said unto my Lord, S...

Knowing this first, that no prophecy of the scripture is of any private interpretation - 2 Peter 1:20

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